CIS 170 Midterm Exam Guide

CIS 170 Midterm Exam Guide

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CIS 170 Midterm Exam Guide
• Question 1
Data alteration and denial directly targets the computer by attacking the useful information stored or processed by the computer.
• Question 2
Child pornography is an example of which type of computer crime?
• Question 3
Agnew argues that crime is due to a lack of attachment to parents.
• Question 4
_____________ is designed to impose a sanction on convicted offenders in order to prevent them from continuing to commit criminal acts in the future.
• Question 5
Which of the following forms of technology expanded the scope of hacker activities?
• Question 6
The primary avenue of redress for corporations seeking to litigate charges of corporate espionage is the criminal courts.
• Question 7
What major category of information warfare/cyber-terror does “cryptography” fall into?
• Question 8
Which technique of neutralization occurs when an individual believes that the victim “had it coming”?
• Question 9
Computer crime is not an international problem.
• Question 10
An unauthorized program typically contained within a legitimate program is known as a:
• Question 11
During what decade did electronic funds transfers (EFT’s) begin to expand money laundering opportunities?
• Question 12
Recent research has linked the act of music and software piracy to what prominent theory?
• Question 13
Fortune 1000 technology firms report an average of how many espionage attacks per year?
• Question 14
Which of the following is defined in terms of their activities related to denial of service attacks?
• Question 15
Traditional money laundering techniques include all of the following except one. Which technique below is not a traditional method of money laundering?
• Question 16
Opportunities for identity crimes have increased primarily because consumers are increasingly asked to use their social security number as a personal identifier.
• Question 17
A subculture is a set of values, norms, and beliefs that differ from the dominant culture.
• Question 18
The unique feature of a worm is that it:
• Question 19
A virus is a piece of code that attaches itself to other instructions within a computer.
• Question 20
Which of the following is most true?
• Question 21
A worm is a program that reproduces itself over a computer network by breaking into computers much like a virtual hacker.
• Question 22
The United States is likely the nation that is most vulnerable to digital terrorism.
• Question 23
According to Merton, a(n) ___________ accepts the goal of economic success but rejects the institutionalized means to obtain it.
• Question 24
The 80s were a pivotal decade in the trend toward defining hackers as “criminals.”
• Question 25
One of the primary tenets of the “hacker code” as conceived by Levy is that information should be free to all users.
• Question 26
Data alteration, denial of service, network intrusions, thefts of information, and computer vandalism are examples of which type of computer crime?
• Question 27
Research indicates that individuals with low self control are more likely to view on-line pornography.
• Question 28
Which of the following is defined as a malicious hacker?
• Question 29
Virus writers generally write viruses to steal information and destroy data.
• Question 30
Which of the following is true?
• Question 31
What major category of information warfare/cyber-terror does “web site defacement” fall into?
• Question 32
Hackers were generally considered to be “criminals” as early as the 60s.
• Question 33
The motives for many writers of malicious software have changed from profit to curiosity and revenge.
• Question 34
What major category of information warfare/cyber-terror does “data hiding” fall into?
• Question 35
Hackers predominantly associate themselves with illegal acts.
• Question 36
What major category of information warfare/cyber-terror does “cyber-plagues” fall into?
• Question 37
This group tends to define hackers and their activities in terms of the danger associated with hacking and its sometimes malicious intent.
• Question 38
All of the following terms are used to characterize and describe viruses, except:
• Question 39
Which of the following is NOT one of the four primary environments viruses operate in?
• Question 40
Recent studies suggest that 10 percent of personal computers are infected by malicious software.
• Question 41
“Neutralization techniques” may be defined as:
• Question 42
The primary difference between data alteration and network intrusion is the
• Question 43
According to Kohlberg, right corresponds to seeing one’s own needs met, taking responsibility for oneself, and allowing others to do the same in which stage of moral development?
• Question 44
Criminal statistics on computer crime are?
• Question 45
The advent of large-scale computerized databases in the financial services field has made embezzlement a more technically-oriented crime requiring more sophisticated knowledge than was the case 30 years ago.
• Question 46
This group tends to define hackers and their activities in terms of the illegality of hacking.
• Question 47
Which type of computer crime describes actions in which the computer is used only to further a criminal end? In other words, the computer or data contained therein is not the object of the crime.
•Question 48
Despite its contention that modern technological advancements are incompatible with fundamentalist Islam culture, Al-Qaeda has become a primary foe in the digital terrorism area.
• Question 49
Hackers appear to exhibit a subculture that includes:

BUSN 602 Final Exam Answers

BUSN 602 Final Exam Answers

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BUSN 602 Final Exam Answers

Question 1         

The security market line can be used to determine the expected return on a security if we know the:

A.      risk-free rate

B.      systematic risk of that security

C.      market risk premium

D.      all of the above

Question 2         

The constant dividend growth model assumes:

A.      a constant annual dividend

B.      a constant dividend growth rate for no more than the first 10 years

C.      that the discount rate must be greater than the dividend growth rate           

               

                D. two of above are true assumptions

Question 3         

The ________ is the discount rate that equates the present value of the cash inflows with the initial investment.

A.      payback period

B.      average rate of return

C.      cost of capital

D.      internal rate of return

Question 4         

Which one of the following types of ratios indicates the ability to meet short-term obligations to creditors as they come due?

A.      liquidity ratios

B.       asset management ratios

C.       capital structure ratios

D.       profitability ratios

                  E.    market value ratios

Question 5         

A business organization that receives the limited liability of a corporation but is taxed as a proprietorship or partnership is called a:

A.       limited proprietorship

B.      limited partnership

C.      limited corporation

D.      S corporation

Question 6         

The accrued liabilities of a firm are:

A.      retained earnings from past years

B.      reflect the prepayment of certain expenses

C.      owners’ equity in the firm

D.      amounts owed but not yet due

Question 7         

Which one of the following is not considered to be a generally recognized type of market efficiency?

A.      strong-form

B.      semi-strong form

C.      weak-form

D.      insider-information form

Question 8         

The internal rate of return concept is best explained by which of the following?

A.      rate where NPV is equal to zero

B.      point where initial investment has been returned

C.      marginal cost of capital

D.      average book value

Question 9         

The estimate of how quickly a firm may grow by maintaining a constant mix of debt and equity is called:

A.      the retention growth rate 

B.      dividend growth rate

C.      sustainable growth rate

D.      the internal growth rate

Question 10       

The primary purpose of the liquidity ratios is to determine:

A.      the extent to which borrowed funds are used to finance assets

B.      the ability of the firm to meet short-term obligations to creditors

C.      the extent to which assets are used to support sales

D.      none of the above

Question 11       

Firms issue more equities than bonds for the following reason(s).

A.      it is cheaper to raise equity than to borrow

B.      bonds have a maturity date making them pricier

C.      both a and b are true

D.      none of the above are true

Question 12       

All of the following accounts are considered to be current liabilities on the balance sheet except:

A.      depreciation

B.      accounts payable

C.      accruals

D.      notes payable

E.       all of the above are current liabilities

Question 13       

On the balance sheet, total assets minus net fixed assets equals:

A.      current assets

B.      current liabilities

C.      gross fixed assets

D.      total assets

E.       none of the above               

Question 14       

If a person requires greater return when risk increases, that person is said to be:

A.      risk seeking

B.      risk averse

C.      risk aware

D.      risk indifferent       

Question 15       

Why is depreciation considered to be a “tax shield”?

Question 16       

The ability of a firm to meet its short-term debt obligations as they come due is indicated by which of the following ratios:

A.      liquidity ratios

B.      asset utilization ratios

C.      financial leverage ratios

D.      profitability ratios

Question 17       

A sinking fund:

A.      is a special fund set up to pay of the creditors of bankrupt firms

B.      requires specific approval by the firm’s the board of directors

C.      requires the issuer to retire a bond issue incrementally over time

D.      none of the above

Question 18       

Unsystematic risk is also known as:

A.      market risk

B.      non diversifiable risk

C.      firm-specific risk

D.      macroeconomic risk

Question 19       

The ratio between the present value of a project’s cash inflows and the present value of its initial investment is called the:

A.      MIRR.

B.      IRR.

C.      PI.

D.      NPV.

E.       none of the above are correct

Question 20       

A firm’s business risk is measured by the variability in which one of the following over time:

a.       net sales

b.      total assets

c.       operating income (EBIT)

d.      net income

Question 21       

Variations in operating income over time because of variations in unit sales, price, cost margins, and/or fixed expenses are called:

a.       business risk

b.      exchange rate risk

c.       purchasing power risk

d.      financial risk

e.      none of the above

Question 22       

As a general rule, the capital structure that:

a.       minimizes the cost of equity also maximizes the stock price

b.      maximizes the stock price also minimizes the weighted average cost of capital

c.       minimizes the cost of debt also maximizes the expected earnings per share

d.      none of the above is a true statement

Question 23       

The cost of capital for retained earnings:

a.       cannot be determined

b.      may be determined by more than method

c.       is greater than the cost of capital for common stock

d.      none of the above

Question 24       

Examples of external economic data required for project analysis include all of the following except:

a.       business cycle stages.

b.      inflation trends

c.       labor-management relations

d.      exchange rate trends

e.      all of the above are included

Question 25       

A firm’s stock is expected to pay a $2 annual dividend next year, and the current $50 stock price is expected to rise to $53 over the next year. What is the expected return?

a.       8%

b.      10%

c.       12%

d.      15

               

               

BUSN 420 Wk 8 Final Exam

BUSN 420 Wk 8 Final Exam

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BUSN 420 Wk 8 Final Exam
Question 1. (TCO 1) As an assistant in the legal department of a major corporation, your supervisor has asked you to do some research on how various laws may be applied in an upcoming case. Your department needs to coordinate with outside counsel and wants to be up to speed on how the law works. Explain the sources of law in the American legal system. Is our civil law system more or less advantageous than the common law system? Why is it important to understand all sources of law and where to find them? Explain your answer with examples in a business context.
Question 2. (TCO 2) Given the current economic climate nationwide and locally, the state of Delmarva would like to impose a higher tax on out-of-state companies doing business in the state than it imposes on in-state companies. The reason behind the legislature’s enactment of this law is to protect the local firms from out-of-state competition because they are losing local business, which is affecting the state’s economy. Is this law legal, or is it a violation of equal protection for a state to impose? What legal standards could the court apply in evaluating the constitutionality of a law and which would apply in this instance? Explain.
Question 3. (TCO 3) Create a brief scenario and walk it through the litigation process, beginning with how to select the proper jurisdiction of a court, and progressing through the basic steps leading to a resolution of the dispute through appeal.
Question 4. (TCO 4) Sandy mails a letter back to Andrea that she has signed; the letter makes reference to a car Andrea has for sale and Andrea’s desired price. When Andrea later delivers the car to Sandy, Sandy returns the car, claiming she does not want the car and that they did not have a contract, so she is not bound to keep the car. Andrea, however, claims they do have a contract and wants to enforce said contract for the price of the car. What standard would the court use to determine whether there is a contract between the parties for the sale of the car?
Question 5. (TCO 5) There are several distinctions in contract law between the UCC and common law as it relates to certain principles. As it relates to modification of a contract, how is the UCC’s treatment of this subject different from that of common law? What are the important factors to be considered? Provide an example that demonstrates the difference.
Question 6. (TCO 6) Explain your understanding of administrative law. How would you classify administrative law from a categorical standpoint as it fits in the context of other areas of law and what procedures are involved in the administrative process as it pertains to an agency’s function and purpose?
Question 7. (TCO 7) Smart Corporation began marketing phone in 2002 under the mark “Smart.” In 2008, Smart.com, Inc., a different company selling different products, such as school supplies and the like, begins using “smart” as part of its website URL and registers “sMART” as its domain name. Can Smart Corporation stop this use of “sMART”? If so, what must the company show? Use the scenario given to explain your answer in this context.
Question 8. (TCO 8) Your Company, Inc. wants to do business with My Company, LLC. Because our companies are both savvy, they would like to conduct their business online. What determines the effect (or lack thereof) of the electronic documents evidencing the parties’ deal according to the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act (UETA)? Is a “signature” from one of the company’s a necessary part of the deal? Explain you answer by elaborating on the scenario with the facts you think are necessary to support your position.
Question 9. (TCO 9) Agency law plays a big part in corporate responsibility (and liability). Differentiate between an employee and an independent contractor. What is the difference and what are the key factors that must be considered in determining one’s status as an employee or independent contractor? Once status is determined, what affect will it have on the responsibilities of the agent? The principal? Is one status better than another? Why? Explain your answers using a representative example involving a principal, an agent, and a situation that would call the agent’s status into question.
Question 10. (TCO 10) Tim and Tom are twins. They live and work near the beach and are also partners in TnT, Inc., a bicycle messenger service. When deliveries are few, especially in the summer, Tom without telling Tim, rents the extra bicycles to tourists who want to explore the resort area. Because the bicycles aren’t being used for deliveries, is it acceptable for Tom to keep the proceeds he receives from renting leasing the unused bicycles? Explain your answer based on the facts in the scenario in the context of partnership law.

BUSN 379 Midterm Exam Guide

BUSN 379 Midterm Exam Guide

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BUSN 379 Midterm Exam Guide
1. What is the goal of financial management for a sole proprietorship?
2. Working capital management includes which of the following?
3. Market value reflects which of the following…
4. Which of the following is true regarding income statements?
5. Telemarket Inc. has sales of $625,000. They paid $43,000 in interest during the year and depreciation was $79,000. Administrative costs were $100,000 and other costs were $160,000. Assuming a tax rate of 35 percent, what is Telemarket’s taxable income?
6. Home Best Hardware had $315,000 in taxable income last year. Using the tax rates provided in Table 2.3, what is the approximate average tax rate?
7. Pizza A had earnings after taxes of $390,000 in the year 2008 and 300,000 shares outstanding. In year 2009, earnings after taxes increased by 20 percent to $468,000 and 25,000 new shares were issued for a total of 325,000 shares. What is the EPS figure for 2008?
8. The income statement reflects:
9. Green Leaf Nursery has EBIT of $250,000, interest of $30,000, taxes of $50,000, and depreciation of $80,000. What is the company’s operating cash flow?
10. Mark deposited $1,000 today, in an account that pays eight percent interest, compounded semi-annually. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning this investment?
11. Mr. Smith will receive $8,500 a year for the next 14 years from a contract. If the interest rate on this investment is eight percent, what is the approximate current value of these future payments?
12. KED Engineering acquired an additional business unit for $310,000. The seller agreed to accept annual payments of $67,000 at an interest rate of 6.5 percent. How many years will it take KED Engineering to pay for this purchase?
13. Fine Oak Woodworks is considering a project that has cash flows of $6,000, $4,000, and $3,000 for the next three years. If the appropriate discount rate of this project is 10 percent, which of the following statements is false?
14. You are considering two investments. Investment I, is in a software company and Investment II, is an engineering company. The investments offer the following cash flows:
Year Software Company Engineering Company
1 $5,000 $15,000
2 $3,000 $8,000
3 $4,000 $9,000
4 $3,600 $11,000
If the appropriate discount rate is 10 percent, what is the approximate present value of the Software Company investment?
15. North Bank offers you an APR of 13.17 percent compounded monthly, and South Bank offers you an effective rate of 13.75 percent on a business loan. Which bank should you choose and why?
16. Which one of the following will increase the future value of a lump sum invested today?
17. Which one of the following is an example of an annuity, but not a perpetuity?
18. Fanta Cola has $1,000 par value bonds outstanding at 12 percent interest. The bonds mature in 25 years. What is the current price of the bond if the YTM is 13 percent? Assume annual payments.
19. A bond’s debenture will include which of the following?
20. Bonds issued by Blue Sky Airlines have a face value of $1,000 and currently sell for $850. The annual coupon payments are $80. If the bonds have 10 years until maturity, what is the approximate YTM of the bonds?
21. Bean Coffee issued preferred stock many years ago. It carries a dividend of $8 per share, fixed. As time has passed, yields have decreased from the original eight percent (at the time of issuance) to six percent. What was the current price of the stock? Hint: Yield is the same as required rate of return.
22. Intelligence Research, Inc. will pay a common stock dividend of $1.60 at the end of the year. The required rate of return by common stockholders is 13 percent. The firm has a constant growth rate of 7.5 percent. What is the current price of the stock?
23. Royal Electric paid a $4 dividend last year. The dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of six percent over the next four years. Common stockholders require a 13 percent return. What are the values of the dividends for years 1, 2 and 3, respectively?
24. Which of the following is true regarding the primary market?
25. The smallest firms listed on NASDAQ are in the NASDAQ _____ Market.
26. The annual interest on a bond divided by the bond’s market price is called the:
27. Star Industries has one outstanding bond issue. An indenture provision prohibits the firm from redeeming the bonds during the first two years. This provision is referred to as a _____ provision.
28. Which of the following is true regarding bonds?
29. Which of the following best describes a floating-rate bond?
30. Which of the following are not true regarding convertible bonds? Select all that apply:
31. In a general partnership, each partner is personally liable for..
32. Trademarks are classified as /:
33. Explain agency theory. Provide an example of a potential agency problem for a corporation, and identify means by which the firm can help reduce or eliminate that problem.
34. How can we apply the concept of time value of money in evaluating a mortgage? Present at least two scenarios. Briefly explain your rationale
35. Why do firms use protective covenants? Provide two or three examples of protective covenants, and explain how these covenants increase or decrease risk
36. What are some of the features of zero-coupon bonds that make them attractive to certain investors? Which type of investors will be most interested in these bonds?

BUSN 320 Midterm Exam Solution

BUSN 320 Midterm Exam Solution

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BUSN 320 Midterm Exam Solution
BUSN 320 Pre Essay Grade Midterm Exam
Question 1
A large global manufacturing concern such as general motors would likely use which of the following online techniques to solicit bids from suppliers?
Question 2
.org is an example of what?
Question 3
In e-commerce, the terms “customization” and “configuration” are best described by which of the following statements?
Question 4
In a few short paragraphs, please discuss the most significant barriers or potential risks you see to the continued growth of e-commerce(please be as specific as possible).
Question 5
TCP/IP is best described by which of the following statements?
Question 6
A website like PetSmart might best be described by which of these descriptors ?
Question 7
One of the most important reasons e- commerce firms focus on partnerships is best described by which of the following statements?
Question 8
Please list the top ten ideas or concepts you learned in the first half of this course (use bullets, or as I prefer to say “headlines”, to keep this short, but please be specific)
Question 9
According to our text, the four primary categories of e-commerce include all the following EXCEPT:
Question 10
The seven step market opportunity analysis framework discussed in the text, which begins with a ten defying unmet and or underserved customer needs, is best described by which of the following statements?
Question 11
the advertising revenue model used by Google uses which of the following programs to generate most of its revenue?
Question 12
A value cluster includes which of the following components ?
Question 13
The four critical forces that form the context of strategy formulation in e-commerce include all of the following EXCEPT:
Question 14
Sites like myspace or facebook could best be said to focus on which of the 7C’s?
Question 15
An affiliate program is often characterized by which of the following?
Question 16
Competitive advantage is thought to derive primarily from which of the following?
Question 17
click through rates for interstitials verses banner ads are best described by which statement below?
Question 18
Customer product evaluations posted on a website by the customers themselves or by a trusted intermediary might be considered an example of what?
Question 19
Customization is synonymous with which of these terms?
Question 20
The relationship between the world wide web and the internet is best described by which of the following statements?

BUSN 320 Final Exam Solution

BUSN 320 Final Exam Solution

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BUSN 320 Final Exam Solution
Question 1
A website development project may not lend itself to rapid development techniques if it has which of the following characteristics?
Question 2
Competition between telecoms and cable companies to provide broadband access to private homes and offices is a function of which of these factors?
Question 3
Which of the following statements dealing with the implementation of the commerce web sites is most accurate?
Question 4
IMHO e-commerce will continue to grow and prosper mainly because it is relatively “frictionless” when compared to offline business processes. In a few short paragraphs discuss what you think I mean by this (please be as specific as possible). BTW you won’t find the answer to this in the book or on the web, use your finely developed analytical reasoning instead.
Question 5
Please list the Top Ten concepts, ideas or facts you will remember from Chapters 7-12 (use bullets or “headlines to keep this short).
Question 6
An experienced investor will document their interest in investing in a new venture by means of what?
Question 7
partnerships are more likely to succeed one which of the following elements are present?
Question 8
Customer metrics associated with an online business should focus on which of the following?
Question 9
The source of funding for a new venture which is least likely to materialize is which of the following options?
Question 10
At one point eBay’s e-commerce sites were nearly overwhelmed by unexpected volumes of legitimate customer activity. this might have been avoided if ebay had focused on designing more of what into their system?
Question 11
According to the authors of our text, a seamless customer experience means what?
Question 12
when considering outsourced hosting alternatives, a company wishing to maintain the most control over the hardware running their website would select which of these options?
Question 13
Which of this following statements regarding hybrid companies, those organizations having both an online component and an offline component, is most accurate?
Question 14
DVR-like technologies pose a serious threat to whom?
Question 15
One issue faced by companies that maintain separate online and offline organizations is the competition for the same customers that will inevitably arise between the two entities. This competition is known as what?
Question 16
The term bluetooth technology is derived from what?
Question 17
Which of the following best describes site architecture at a high level?
Question 18
Most modern e-commerce web sites include which of the following tiers?
Question 19
Ultimately the success or failure of a new web site launch will be judged by which of the following?
Question 20
In a client-server architecture, the best description of a server is provided by which of the following statements?

BUSN 319 Wk 4 Midterm Exam

BUSN 319 Wk 4 Midterm Exam

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BUSN 319 Wk 4 Midterm Exam
Question 1. (TCO 1) The Accounting Equation is used to develop the organization’s financial reports.
(1) Describe what assets are (10 points) and
(2) provide an example of an asset account.
Question 2. (TCO 1) The financial statements present a company to the public in financial terms. (1) Which financial statement identifies how well the company performed during the year (10 points) and (2) explain what information this financial statement provides.
Question 3. (TCO 1) The accounting profession follows a set of guidelines for measurement and disclosure of financial information called the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP). (1) Explain what the Cost Principle is (10 points) and (2) provide an example of its application.
Question 4. (TCO 2) Transaction analysis results in the development of a journal entry. Supplies are purchased on account agreeing to pay $2,500 within 30 days. (1) Name the accounts impacted and how to use the format account name/debit or credit/dollar amount (10 points), and (2) explain how the Accounting Equation is impacted.
Question 5. (TCO 3) Adjusting Entries are required at the end of the period to ensure that accrual accounting principles are applied. At the beginning of the month, $350 of office supplies were purchased. There was not a beginning balance and the one purchase was the only one for the month. At the end of the month, $100 of supplies remained. Develop the adjusting entry. (1) Name the accounts impacted and explain how to use the format account name/debit or credit/dollar amount (10 points), and (2) explain how the Accounting Equation is impacted.
Question 6. (TCO 5) Internal Controls are required to safeguard assets and to ensure ethical business practices. (1) Identify and explain the reason for any two of the seven internal control procedures (10 points) and (2) provide examples of how your two selected internal control procedures will meet the goal of safeguarding assets and promoting ethical business practices.
Question 7. (TCO 5) The bank account as a control device that helps to protect cash. One of the requirements is to conduct periodic bank statement reconciliations. Using the following data, complete the bank statement reconciliation for Acorn Plumbing, Inc. (Use the format shown on page 251 of your textbook.)
• The bank statement indicated a service charge of $56.
• Acorn made a deposit on May 31, but this deposit did not appear on the bank statement, $1,451.
• A credit memo in the bank statement indicated a bank collection of a note for $1,300 with interest received of $16. This item was dated May 18.
• Also included in the bank statement was a debit memo for a NSF check for $314 from Barney Smythe.
• Checks #1406 for $1,342, #1610 for $1,609, and #1825 for $857 were written by Acorn and sent to the respective companies, but these checks do not appear on the bank statement.
• The balance on the bank statement as of May 31 was $13,119.
• The Cash account on Acorn’s books showed an amount of $9,816.